03-20-2019 05:07 PM
Hi
When doing PBR, if you PBR on an incoming VLAN and then point it to a next hop which is accessible from another VLAN do you need to do PBR there as well?
For instance, traffic comes in on VDC#1 - VLAN 1600 and the next hop is via VDC#1 VLAN1100 (the IP is at the other end of this VLAN on VDC#2) do you need to PBR again on VLAN1100? I wouldn't think so as the switch has already done the PBR and sent the traffic outbound towards VDC2?
Thanks
Brad
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03-20-2019 08:03 PM - edited 03-21-2019 03:11 AM
Hello
Correct you would not need to PBR again .
just like to add to @Jaderson Pessoa comments
A caveat in using the set ip default is it will not work if the DIP relies just on a default route in the rib - in this case PBR will ignore the rib and use the set IP address instead.
03-20-2019 05:16 PM - edited 03-20-2019 05:18 PM
@bradleyordner Hello,
If you need that a PBR redirect traffic for some address without consulting routing table. You need use a PBR set ip address
next-hop x.x.x.x
If you need that a PBR redirect traffic for some address but is necessary consulting routing table before and if there match on routing table, PBR isnt used. You need use a PBR set ip default address next-hop x.x.x.x
03-20-2019 08:03 PM - edited 03-21-2019 03:11 AM
Hello
Correct you would not need to PBR again .
just like to add to @Jaderson Pessoa comments
A caveat in using the set ip default is it will not work if the DIP relies just on a default route in the rib - in this case PBR will ignore the rib and use the set IP address instead.
04-02-2019 04:37 PM
I did a test in a LAB of Cisco Routers and indeed we don't need the PBR on that VLAN. Something is different in our environment nd I am going to have to explore.
Brad
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