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RV042 protocol binding for SIP and RTP (VoIP)

felix.schneider
Level 1
Level 1

Hello everybody,

I have a RV042 with a DSL (WAN1) and cable (WAN2) internet connection in Load Balance Mode. The DSL provider also provides internet telephony when registered via his line. When I disable the WAN2 port, my IP phone successully registers with the registration server of the DSL provider. I also defined protocol bindings for SIP (port 5060) and RTP (ports 5004 to 5020) to be bound to WAN1. My IP phone is set up to listen on only these ports.

The rules are in detail:

SIP(UDP/5060~5060) -> "myPhoneIP"~"myPhoneIP" ("RegistrationServerP"~"RegistrationServerIP") WAN1 [Enabled]

SIP(UDP/5060~5060) -> "RegistrationServerIP"~"RegistrationServerIP" ("myPhoneIP"~"myPhoneIP") WAN1 [Enabled]

RTP(UDP/5004~5020) -> "myPhoneIP"~"myPhoneIP" ("RegistrationServerP"~"RegistrationServerIP") WAN1 [Enabled]

RTP(UDP/5004~5020) -> "RegistrationServerIP"~"RegistrationServerIP" ("myPhoneIP"~"myPhoneIP") WAN1 [Enabled]

With these protocol bindings in place when I re-enable WAN2, then after some time the phone reports "registration failed".

Do I need to set something else apart from protocol binding to force the VoIP traffic to go via WAN1?

Thanks for your help

Felix

1 Accepted Solution

Accepted Solutions

Congrats! And I certainly plan to. Enjoy your day as well.

-Tom Please mark answered for helpful posts http://blogs.cisco.com/smallbusiness/

View solution in original post

23 Replies 23

felix.schneider
Level 1
Level 1

I am still hoping for some help. My problem is still unsolved. If I did not make my problem clear enough, please ask for further information. Or, if there is some principle limitation that prevents binding VoIP traffic to one WAN port, please let me know so that I can take further steps (terminate phone service with DSL provider). Currently I cannot use my fast cable connection if I still want to be accessible by phone via my slow DSL connection.

Regards,

Felix

Hi Felix, can you try to set the protocol bind specifying all services with source IP being what you're using, destination IP address 0.0.0.0 using the WAN 1?

-Tom Please mark answered for helpful posts http://blogs.cisco.com/smallbusiness/

Hi Thomas, thanks for responding. In addition to the rules I specified above, I added the following rules:

All Traffic [TCP&UDP/1~65535]->"myPhoneIP"~"myPhoneIP"(0.0.0.0~0.0.0.0)WAN1 [Enabled]

All Traffic [TCP&UDP/1~65535]->0.0.0.1~0.0.0.254("myPhoneIP"~"myPhoneIP")WAN1 [Enabled]

Result is again: Phone reports "Registration failed".

Anything else that I could try?

Pardon my memory if I am mistaken, when configuring the protocol bind for the WAN port, there are 4 or 5 options. Service, which of course is 1~65535, source IP, in this scenario it should be the phone or PBX, whatever you're using. The destination IP should be 0.0.0.0 and interface is your desired WAN, WAN 1 or 2.

Example:

Wan 1- Cable       Wan 2 - Dsl

       |                              | 

       | ________________ |

                      |

                  RV042-----------

              ____|                |

              |                     Computer  192.168.10.100

          Tele/PBX 192.168.10.250

On this example to route the Telephone / PBX to WAN 1

All services 1~65535

Source IP 192.168.10.250

Destination IP 0.0.0.0

Interface WAN 1

Please correct me if I am mistaken, I'm currently not at work due to the US holiday

-Tom Please mark answered for helpful posts http://blogs.cisco.com/smallbusiness/

Thomas, I really appreciate you working on the US holiday.

To be specific here is my setup:

WAN1 - DSL            WAN2 - Cable

|                              |

|_________________|

               |

          RV042

               |

LAN3____|_____[...]

|

|

Phone(192.168.1.16)

Thanks for the picture. Delete all other rules except the all traffic that is hi-lited.

To clarify, if you use either WAN without a load balance, the phone/PBX are always working without issues?

-Tom Please mark answered for helpful posts http://blogs.cisco.com/smallbusiness/

To clarify: the phone is only working with WAN1 enabled and WAN2 disabled. With WAN2 enabled and WAN1 disabled, the phone reports "Registration failed". (with protocol binding adjusted to WAN2 when enabled).

Interestingly enough when WAN1 is enabled and WAN2 disabled but protocols are bound to WAN2 the phone successully registers. How can this be?!

In the event of a WAN failure, the protocol binding is going to fail over to the working WAN. The connection you're using on WAN 2 is the cable, has the phone ever registered successfully through that connection either using the cable as the only WAN?

-Tom Please mark answered for helpful posts http://blogs.cisco.com/smallbusiness/

No. Never.

When you connect a computer directly to the cable connection, what IP address do you receive?

-Tom Please mark answered for helpful posts http://blogs.cisco.com/smallbusiness/

These are the IP addresses I receive when both WANs are enabled. Does it make a difference whether the RV042 gets the IP or a "computer connected directly" to the cable modem?

A lot of ISP provide a modem/router device. It would be curious to see if your WAN 2 information is a NAT address if a computer connects directly to the device. What is the model # of that modem?

-Tom Please mark answered for helpful posts http://blogs.cisco.com/smallbusiness/

Sorry, I don't understand the NAT issue. I would assume there is no difference.

The cable modem is a Cisco EPC3208. It has been set up by the technician when he installed my cable connection. I don't have the admin password.

This seems to be a normal modem device.  When using the WAN 2, does your internet work fine, only the phone register fails?

-Tom Please mark answered for helpful posts http://blogs.cisco.com/smallbusiness/
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