OK, clearly I am missing something, but this is my first time using both VLANs and Voice. I have read so much documentation that my eyes are glazing over.
Scenario: Cisco SG220-50P feeding a Sonicwall TZ600 firewall and then out to the internet through a Cisco 800 to a 20Mb connection. Currently have 35 PCs happily working away, all on one subnet with static IPs.
Goal: 25 of the ports on the Cisco will connect to a Polycom VVX410 phone (which support both LLDP and CDP) with a PC connected through the phone (which has a gigabit switch built in). Use a Voice VLAN to prioritize voice traffic.
The phones, the PCs, the firewall and the switch all have static IPs (not DHCP) on the same subnet.
Done:
Plugged in the switch, changed it's IP, otherwise stock. Plugged in a phone, set its IP to be on the same subnet as the PC and was able to make and receive calls successfully. PC attached to the phone worked fine.
Now I want to set up my VLAN
1. Added an OUI for Polycom phones
2. Checked that LLDP and CDP are enabled on the switch
3. Created a new VLAN (ID 100)
4. Set the Voice VLAN to be VLAN 100
5. Enables Telephony OUI for VLAN 100
6. Made my uplink port a member of both VLAN 1 (data – untagged ) and VLAN 2 (voice – tagged)
Let's test one port:
6. In “Port to VLAN” Port 24 is set to “trunk”, “untagged” for VLAN1, “tagged” for VLAN100.
7.Saved everything, rebooted the switch
8. In “port VLAN membership” table I see port 24 is a Trunk with 1UP and 100T. Lookin' good!!
9. Can still make and receive phone calls, PC connects to internet.
But……..
I check the dynamic MAC address table and see both the phone and PC are still both on VLAN1, clearly I am doing something wrong……………
Thanks in advance for any help!!
