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Ospf area

Is a ospf router(ABR) can join with two or more non-backbone area without joining backbone area?

 

Is it possible?

See the attachment with this post for better understand my question

Thank you

6 Accepted Solutions

Accepted Solutions

Reza Sharifi
Hall of Fame
Hall of Fame

No, one area must be area 0 connected to an ABR.

HTH 

View solution in original post

Hello

Only if either r1 or r3 in your diagram has an interface in the backbone and that additional abr is attached to that rtrs non backbone area then it would be applicable, otherwise if it isn't then that additional abr would gain ospf adjacency but prefixes wont be advertised correctly  throughout the ospf domain.


Please rate and mark as an accepted solution if you have found any of the information provided useful.
This then could assist others on these forums to find a valuable answer and broadens the community’s global network.

Kind Regards
Paul

View solution in original post

Hello,

 

on a side note, the 'traditional' way to make this work would be a virtual links. You can tie two virtual links together and connect multiple non-backbone areas to the backbone. In your drawing, is R1 connected to the backbone ?

View solution in original post

@Georg Pauwen 

refering to the OP original diagram post rtr 1 or 3 would still require connection to the backbone for the VL of the new rtr to connect if it was in its assigned it’s own area.


Please rate and mark as an accepted solution if you have found any of the information provided useful.
This then could assist others on these forums to find a valuable answer and broadens the community’s global network.

Kind Regards
Paul

View solution in original post

Joseph W. Doherty
Hall of Fame
Hall of Fame

To clarify, join yes, R2, in your diagram, can have interfaces in both areas 1 and 2, but it would not be an ABR w/o an area zero interface. R2, for any traffic that passes through it, could forward traffic from one area to the other but it would not redistribute area 1's routes to area 2 nor the converse. I.e., in your diagram, R2 would have the complete area topologies for both areas 1 and 2, but R1 would only have area 1's topology, while R3 would only have area 2's topology.

BTW, with only the 3 routers in your diagram, I believe you can make R2 an ABR by simply using a loopback interface, on it, placed into area zero.

 

PS:

In the above, I'm also assuming you're running OSPF in just one OSPF process, on R2.  If you ran each area, on R2, in a separate OSPF process, R2 will still forward traffic, flowing through it, between the two areas, it will also not, by default, share routes between the two areas, but two differences would be, first adding area zero, would not, by default, share routes either (remember, you can now have two area zeros, one per OSPF process), second you can redistribute between the two OSPF processes, which will share routes.  The latter would function much like an ABR (although it's still not an ABR), between areas 1 and 2 (BTW, like area zero, you can have both those areas per routing process, for example, rather than areas 1 and 2 you could have two areas 1), but, instead, your router would be an OSPF ASBR.

View solution in original post

Hello,

 

if R1 connects to the backbone, you can configure a virtual link between R1 and R2,in order to connect R3 to the backbone. The configurations would look like below (IP addresses are arbitrary obviously). That said, an area not directly connected to the backbone are is considered bad design, so virtual links should be avoided if possible.

 

R1

 

interface Loopback1
ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
description Link to Area 1 R2
ip address 192.168.12.1 255.255.255.252
!
router ospf 1
router-id 1.1.1.1
area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

 

R2

 

interface Loopback2
ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.255
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
description Link to R1
ip address 192.168.12.2 255.255.255.252
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
description Link to R3
ip address 192.168.23.1 255.255.255.252
!
router ospf 1
router-id 2.2.2.2
network 2.2.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 2
area 1 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
network 192.168.23.0 0.0.0.3 area 2

 

R3

 

interface Loopback3
ip address 3.3.3.3 255.255.255.255
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
description Link to R2
ip address 192.168.23.2 255.255.255.252
!
router ospf 1
router-id 3.3.3.3
network 3.3.3.3 0.0.0.0 area 2
network 192.168.23.0 0.0.0.3 area 2

View solution in original post

12 Replies 12

Reza Sharifi
Hall of Fame
Hall of Fame

No, one area must be area 0 connected to an ABR.

HTH 

Hello

Only if either r1 or r3 in your diagram has an interface in the backbone and that additional abr is attached to that rtrs non backbone area then it would be applicable, otherwise if it isn't then that additional abr would gain ospf adjacency but prefixes wont be advertised correctly  throughout the ospf domain.


Please rate and mark as an accepted solution if you have found any of the information provided useful.
This then could assist others on these forums to find a valuable answer and broadens the community’s global network.

Kind Regards
Paul

Additional abr means R2?

Hello,

 

on a side note, the 'traditional' way to make this work would be a virtual links. You can tie two virtual links together and connect multiple non-backbone areas to the backbone. In your drawing, is R1 connected to the backbone ?

Yes R1 connects to area 0 but the other routers(R2 and R3) none.

Hello,

 

if R1 connects to the backbone, you can configure a virtual link between R1 and R2,in order to connect R3 to the backbone. The configurations would look like below (IP addresses are arbitrary obviously). That said, an area not directly connected to the backbone are is considered bad design, so virtual links should be avoided if possible.

 

R1

 

interface Loopback1
ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
description Link to Area 1 R2
ip address 192.168.12.1 255.255.255.252
!
router ospf 1
router-id 1.1.1.1
area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

 

R2

 

interface Loopback2
ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.255
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
description Link to R1
ip address 192.168.12.2 255.255.255.252
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
description Link to R3
ip address 192.168.23.1 255.255.255.252
!
router ospf 1
router-id 2.2.2.2
network 2.2.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 2
area 1 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
network 192.168.23.0 0.0.0.3 area 2

 

R3

 

interface Loopback3
ip address 3.3.3.3 255.255.255.255
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
description Link to R2
ip address 192.168.23.2 255.255.255.252
!
router ospf 1
router-id 3.3.3.3
network 3.3.3.3 0.0.0.0 area 2
network 192.168.23.0 0.0.0.3 area 2

Many many thanks

But here I've a question

In R1

Why you configured

network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

Why not

network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 1

Because you configured on R2

area 1 virtual-link 1.1.1.1

 

Thank you

 

Hello,

 

on R1, network 1.1.1.1/32 needs to be in area 0, in order for R1 to be an ABR (and have a connection to the backbone).

 

The virtual link specifies the transit area, area 1 in this case, that is between area 0 (the backbone) and area 2.

 

Have a look at the link below, they explain more in detail how virtual links work.

 

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/47866-ospfdb7.html#:~:text=All%20areas%20in%20an%20Open,through%20a%20non%2Dbackbone%20area. 

In this link, there is no any network command for any loopback interface...

Hello,

 

the link is just to help understand the concept of virtual links. I placed the loopback in area 0 just to have R1 in the backbone area.

 

If you don't get your specific configs to work, post them here, and we can fill in the bits and pieces...

@Georg Pauwen 

refering to the OP original diagram post rtr 1 or 3 would still require connection to the backbone for the VL of the new rtr to connect if it was in its assigned it’s own area.


Please rate and mark as an accepted solution if you have found any of the information provided useful.
This then could assist others on these forums to find a valuable answer and broadens the community’s global network.

Kind Regards
Paul

Joseph W. Doherty
Hall of Fame
Hall of Fame

To clarify, join yes, R2, in your diagram, can have interfaces in both areas 1 and 2, but it would not be an ABR w/o an area zero interface. R2, for any traffic that passes through it, could forward traffic from one area to the other but it would not redistribute area 1's routes to area 2 nor the converse. I.e., in your diagram, R2 would have the complete area topologies for both areas 1 and 2, but R1 would only have area 1's topology, while R3 would only have area 2's topology.

BTW, with only the 3 routers in your diagram, I believe you can make R2 an ABR by simply using a loopback interface, on it, placed into area zero.

 

PS:

In the above, I'm also assuming you're running OSPF in just one OSPF process, on R2.  If you ran each area, on R2, in a separate OSPF process, R2 will still forward traffic, flowing through it, between the two areas, it will also not, by default, share routes between the two areas, but two differences would be, first adding area zero, would not, by default, share routes either (remember, you can now have two area zeros, one per OSPF process), second you can redistribute between the two OSPF processes, which will share routes.  The latter would function much like an ABR (although it's still not an ABR), between areas 1 and 2 (BTW, like area zero, you can have both those areas per routing process, for example, rather than areas 1 and 2 you could have two areas 1), but, instead, your router would be an OSPF ASBR.

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