10-27-2017 05:46 AM - edited 03-08-2019 12:31 PM
Hello all,
I will keep it simple with only two routers. Please see the diagram.
R1 will prefer to reach Loopback0 of R2 over the f0/0 (Area0).
Even making higher the cost in f0/0, selection does not change!
I thought that it may something have to do with capability transit command.
Although enabled in both routers, nothing changed.
Anyone can explain please?? Is there a rule that says that you must transit Area0 regardless the cost??
Solved! Go to Solution.
10-30-2017 06:15 AM
Thank you both for your response.
Indeed the mentioned RFC states it clearly:
"When routing a packet between two non-backbone areas the
backbone is used. The path that the packet will travel can be
broken up into three contiguous pieces: an intra-area path from
the source to an area border router, a backbone path between the
source and destination areas, and then another intra-area path
to the destination. The algorithm finds the set of such paths
that have the smallest cost."
Thank you for your support
10-27-2017 06:51 AM
10-29-2017 11:44 PM
Thanks for answering. I quess what you are saying is that traffic from non-transit area cannot go directly to another non-transit area, but has to go via transit area 0.
Correct? If that so, can you please provide a link (even better from an RFC) that states that clearly?
10-30-2017 01:06 AM
10-30-2017 01:31 AM
Hello,
in addition to Joseph's remarks, the RFC you are looking for is 2328. Here is an excerpt (page 27 in he link provided):
"The topology of the backbone dictates the backbone paths used
between areas. The topology of the backbone can be enhanced by
adding virtual links. This gives the system administrator some
control over the routes taken by inter-area traffic."
RFC 2328
10-30-2017 06:15 AM
Thank you both for your response.
Indeed the mentioned RFC states it clearly:
"When routing a packet between two non-backbone areas the
backbone is used. The path that the packet will travel can be
broken up into three contiguous pieces: an intra-area path from
the source to an area border router, a backbone path between the
source and destination areas, and then another intra-area path
to the destination. The algorithm finds the set of such paths
that have the smallest cost."
Thank you for your support
10-30-2017 06:44 AM
10-31-2017 02:51 AM - edited 10-31-2017 02:52 AM
Joseph you got me a bit confused there.
I get what you are saying but even more:
I would expect even in the case that the router had attached areas 0,1,2 and traffic had to go from area 1 to 2, it would go directly and not via area 0.
Am i wrong?
10-31-2017 05:02 AM
10-31-2017 11:38 PM
In my mind, RFC is technically violated in both cases, because Area0 is ignored.
Can you please clarify why you make that distinction?
11-01-2017 03:01 AM
11-01-2017 06:41 AM - edited 11-01-2017 06:43 AM
Thank you.
As a general rule I believe we can conclude that:
For traffic between non-backbone areas the packets should traverse Area 0.
The only exception is when both source and destination areas are attached to the same router.
11-01-2017 06:44 AM
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