scroll down to figure 41 where the distribution switch interconnect is blocking and both access layer switch uplinks are forwarding. If vlan 2 is on both access-layer switches does this not form a L2 loop ? The diagram shows both switches forwarding on vlan 2 on both links but to me that seems as though a packet such as a broadcast could origiinate on one access-layer switch and then end up back there.
If each access-layer switch had it's own vlan then i could understand the logic but not with both switches having the same vlan.
Am i missing something ?
Incidentally this is linked to the question about GLBP and STP in case anyone wants some more context.
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