My question is related to "How should it be done" and not so much "How can be be done".
At my work i am the unofficial IT guy. I work for an Arcade/Bar/Grill/Bowling Alley that was reopened just over a year ago. I was not apart of the network setup as i was not yet an employee, and i explain all this because I want anyone to know who is wondering 'wtf?'.. that i had nothing to do with this current setup. I dont like it either. lol
The current setup we have contains two seperate networks, each managed by their own Cisco RV042 (10/100 4-Port VPN Router), and each have their own connection to a Comcast Business Class SMC Modem. (Each has its own static WAN IP provided by Comcast). Both VPN routers have VPN access configured allowing us to connect to our company's corporate intranet and network, and vice versa. Just as a reference point, We will call the first VPN 'GamesNetwork' and the other one 'AdminNetwork'. A problem came up where the computers on AdminNetwork could not access the resources of the GamesNetwork. The problem was resolved by our at-the-time official corporate IT guy but the solution was never explained to me. Recently i got curious and went into the config pages and found that each VPN router was linked to the other the same way corporate links to our VPN's, whch is by using the Internet IP of that vpn... So to me this says we are linking two local vpn networks using their internet connection which is on the same modem.. to me this seems messed up. is this really the way it needs to be done? Now... I have thought of the idea 'make the two networks into 1..' and it could work. but.. i dont have the permission to make this happen.
So quite simply.. the question is.. if you have two vpn routers side by side in the same room, is there a more local means of giving 1 vpn access to the resources of the other and vice versa?
