Hey all so first post so forgive me if I miss something critical. This has been doing my head in now for a couple of weeks and Im hoping to bounce it around in here for a bit of assistance. Basically I have a customer who has two ISP circuits which I plan on plugging into a 2911. Now I have configured it like this document http://www.blindhog.net/cisco-dual-internet-connections-without-bgp/ This bit I have working fine. So here is my topolgy Ok so onto the next bit ISP B was originally plugged into an ASA5510. So on this I have a whole world on NAT and PAT translations for internal servers. My external interface on the ASA was the 220.127.116.11/32 address and I PAT for all internal going outbound. Static NATs are assigned to the /29. So my new topology now looks like this. What I need to know here is how do I get from firewall to router. If I asssign another /32 between fe0 and gi0/0 do I not end up doing double nat? The end user also manages the firewall at the moment and I dont want to have to do the translations on the router. Is this even possible? I have search the internet for many many hours now trying to find an example but have failed miserably. But I only want my existing NAT through ISP B. I am using Policy Based Routing on these as I have specific traffic I need to go through ISP A. Appreciate everyones feedback as Im now numb trying to find the solution.
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