04-06-2004 01:09 AM - edited 03-02-2019 02:49 PM
Hello,
Here is the network I'm working on :
Host --- [OSPF Area 100] --- 4506 ------- 7204 ------- ( IP ) ---------- 10.100.0.0
| ------ 4506 ------- 7204 ------- ( MPLS )
I'd like to link the Host (in the OSPF Area 100) to the network 10.100.0.0 by using the same OSPF area 100 on this network (10.100.0.0), via the IP MPLS network.
Maybe I have to use a virtual link and/or use partitioning.
I'm quite a newbie in this field, so I'd like to have your opinion and your help about this problem.
Thanks,
Eric
04-06-2004 01:11 AM
Sorry for the bad diagram...
You'll have to shift the "| ------ 4506 ------- 7204 ------- ( MPLS )" to the right, the "|" going behind (because linked to) the OSPF area 100.
Eric
04-06-2004 06:37 AM
The best bet is probably to use a sham link:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1839/products_feature_guide09186a0080087ce2.html
You might be able to run a simple ospf adjacency across the MPLS link, if it's a layer 2 emulating tunnel.
:-)
Russ.W
04-07-2004 04:37 AM
Thanks a lot for the link, this is exactly what I need.
But do you think that the sham-link is possible without a backdoor link between the 2 "same-numbered areas" ?
Eric
04-08-2004 07:30 AM
Yes, certainly... You can use sham links between areas with no backdoor link.
:-)
Russ.W
Discover and save your favorite ideas. Come back to expert answers, step-by-step guides, recent topics, and more.
New here? Get started with these tips. How to use Community New member guide