Hello,
I just bought a VPN router, RV325. I'm not an IT professional so, I have a strange question. The router has 2 WAN ports with 7 LAN ports on each. From my ISP I have a subnet class of IPs, something like:
- main IP: x.x.x.x / 255.255.255.128 with gateway x.x.x.1
- subnet: y.y.y.y / 255.255.255.248, gateway y.y.y.1 and available IPs y.y.y.241 - 246
I use this subnet IPs for different purposes that is why I used one of those (y.y.y.242) for the internal network. Before to buy this router, I user another router 192.168.1.1-248 / 255.255.255.0. The question is:
is that possible to take a bind a LAN port from WAN1 to the WAN2 and configure that as the second router? Something like:
- LAN3 of WAN1 = y.y.y.242
bind to
- WAN2 external IP y.y.y.242 and internal LAN ports 192.168.1.1-7
Regards,
Madalin
