06-23-2005 06:30 PM - edited 03-03-2019 09:53 AM
Our ISP has given us 3 public IP's and im planning to use it all on our 2621 router as a single connection, could it be possible for me to implement this so as to maximize the 3 IP's given to us?
06-23-2005 07:49 PM
3 blocks of IPs or 3 consecutive IPs falling under a single block ? Whats the subnet mask ? Have you already been assigned a /30 (or similar) subnet for the wan link ?
06-23-2005 11:08 PM
Yes, we are using 3 consecutive IPs falling under a single block, could I combine this under the single router?
06-23-2005 11:53 PM
Hi,
Please let me know what are the IP subnets with subnet mask.What type of connectivity you have with ISP? Two IPs are required for WAN connectivity.For that you need one /30 (2 usable IPs) IP subnet.For LAN also you need atleast one IP.
06-24-2005 02:09 AM
If you have 3 consecutive IPs falling in a single block then you will not be able to use them on a single router.
HTH
Rick
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