Hi, the question is: Can i use static routes that target ipv6 traffic with ipv4 targets?
What i mean is:
let's say i have an ipv6 client, and my cisco is his ipv6 default gateway.
Can i set a route in the Cisco that looks something like this:
ip route 2001:10:10::0/64 via 22.214.171.124
Basically - can i route ipv6 traffic to an ipv4 destination?
The short answer is no. Could you please explain why you would need to do this?
I want to do this since we are testing ipv6 clients with ipv6 default gateway but not all other elements in the network have ipv6 addresses so i wanted to know if i can route this traffic to them even though they don't have an ipv6 address.
Basically we have a man in the middle server that inspects the traffic that we want to route the traffic to before forwarding it to its original destinations and I would like to know if we can still use it without assigning it an ipv6 address and routes.
If you need to transport native IPv6 packets across an IPv4 moat, you will need some kind of tunnel to encapsulate the traffic. Many kinds of tunnels are possible (6RD, 6PE, 6in4, ...) depending on the details of the environment. Typical encapsulations for LAN traffic would be either GRE (Protocol 47) or IPv6-in-IPv4 (protocol 41). Your man-in-the-middle IPS gizmo would have to be willing to forward your chosen encapsulation, and you'd need a remote gateway with native v6 connectivity.
-- Jim Leinweber, WI State Lab of Hygiene
If the rest of the network does not run IPv6 and you want to commiunicate with it, you might need to use a NAT64 device. This device would connect to both the IPv6 and the IPv4 network and would translate between the two.