04-11-2006 11:08 AM - edited 03-03-2019 02:46 AM
I want to set a direct connection from a router port Fe0 to a switch Fe0. All I should have to do is connect them to gether and it should work. Would my vlan databases populate from the switch to the router with this connection?
04-11-2006 11:15 AM
No, unless the routers port is one of the swithcport in an ethernet switching module and it is trunking and in the same VTP domain as the switch. Otherwise, no VTP.
04-11-2006 11:16 AM
You still have to configure both ports. You can configure the port to carry a single vlan or a trunk of vlans.
Also, unless the 'router' is a layer 3 switch, the vlan database will not be propagated to the router.
04-11-2006 11:50 AM
I forgot about that. Thanks
04-11-2006 12:20 PM
The router is a 3845 and the switch is a 3560 series
04-11-2006 07:35 PM
if you user the port on the 3560 has:
1: no switch port
2: put an IP on your sw port
you will directly connect to your router at L3
a Cisco 3560 is a L3 switch
04-11-2006 11:27 PM
Here is a configuration guide for the 16ESW (the config guide might look like it's for 3600, you can still use it since it's specific for the ESW):
04-13-2006 02:23 AM
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