09-14-2004 12:02 AM - edited 03-02-2019 06:27 PM
Dear all,
The scenario is customer is having a BRI card in one location and a PRI card on the second location. He has taken an ISDN connection from an ISP. Now the customer wants to dial the BRI card from the PRI card. Can anyone tell me whether it is possible to dial in that way?
Regards,
Anand
09-14-2004 12:51 AM
No problem at all. The BRI will not even know that it was a PRI card that originated the call. The BRI or PRI protocol only goes as far as the local switchboard - it is not end-to-end.
The only thing you should be aware of is that the PRI can handle up to 30 calls, and the BRI has only 2 channels. This means that if your PRI is opening more channels to handle a greater bandwidth, then any calls more than 2 will result "occupied". This will not have any effect on your data transfer, but it may be as well to use the "max-links" feature anyway.
Kevin Dorrell
Luxembourg
09-14-2004 01:47 AM
Dear Kevin
Thanks for the immediate response.Have u come across such situation before? More clarity required on the explanation given by you.
Regards,
Anand.
09-14-2004 02:28 AM
This sort of situation happens all the time. I'm not sure what sort of expanation you want, but here goes. Let me draw a simple analogy with voice phones:
At home, you have a telephone. You have one telephone line, or maybe two. That is your ordinary domestic telephone. That is like a BRI interface.
At work, the company you work for has a switchboard, with lots of connections to the telephone exchange. They might be able to handle, say, 30 telephone calls all at the same time. This is like a PRI.
When someone at your work calls you at home, he has no problem to do so. It doesn't matter that he is calling from a company switchboard, and you have a normal home phone. He is using only one channel of the company switchboard.
Maybe you have two telephone lines at home. He can phone you on both of them at the same time by using two phones in the company. He uses two channels of the company switchboard.
If he takes a third phone in the company and calls you at the same time, the third call will fail because all your lines at home are occupied. He can still tell you what he wants to tell you by using the two calls that are already connected. The data still gets through.
The point is that the telephone line goes only as far as the exchange. It is then up to the telecom provider to connect call by call. You don't need to know anythikng about the type of line in use at the other end of the call. The line is not end-to-end.
Sorry if the explanation is a bit basic, but I find analogies very useful.
Kevin Dorrell
Luxembourg.
09-14-2004 06:17 AM
Dear Kevin
Thanks for your clarification.This helped me really a lot. Thank you for sparing your time to answer my query.
Thanks and Regards,
Anand
09-14-2004 06:23 AM
Anand,
Glad to be of service.
If you found the explanation useful, please don't forget to fill in the "solution" and "Rate this post" boxes on the explanation post. It helps evaluate which postings have been useful, and which not. Thanks.
Good luck.
Kevin Dorrell
Luxembourg
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