Can anyone shed some light on a little problem i had...
We have two differnt WAN's in my company. in one particular building, traffic in one subnet is sent over the SMDS network, and traffic in the other is sent over the IP Clear network. This is a legacy thing.
However, We had to have a scheduled outage on the SMDS which caused a problem as one group of users in this subnet were 24/7. So as a work around we planned to tunnel this traffic over the IP Clear network as we have done in other situations before.
We have a 3750 in subnet B which uses IP Clear. We created a vlan interface into subnet A. Ip routing enabled, no routing protocol. i then preceded to configure a tunnel from int vlan B to the destination which worked and tested fine.
When it came time to switch over the routing in subnet A to use this tunnel we hit a problem. On Subnet A's default gateway we put a route to the destination subnet by the 3750 int vlan A.This didnt work!
If i done a tracert from subnet A default gateway to the destination, it doesnt even make the first hop of the 3750 int vlan A. If however we just ping the 3750 int vlan A it responds fine. The route to the destination is defintly pointing to the 3750 int vlan A.
As this failed, we ported the tunnel setup on to a replacement dual int router, same configuration, everything worked fine!
This leads me to think that there is something to do with using the multilayer switch. Maybe something to do with routed ports or tunnels from Vlan interfaces, but i can't get it pegged yet.
Can anyone shed any light on this??
Many thanks
