02-22-2002 04:16 AM - edited 03-01-2019 08:35 PM
If you have a remote site which needs to access a server at teh host site. Is it possible for the server to appear to the remote hosts as an IP address on the same IP subnet (i.e. the subnet of the remote LAN), using NAT ?
I think this means that the Inside Local subnet has to be the same as the Outside Local subnet. Is this possible ?
Regards
02-22-2002 05:12 AM
Are you already running NAT on the box at the remote site? It should still be possible to do this, using a static oustside destination translation along with dynamic inside source translation, I'm pretty certain. I've set this sort of thing up before, but don't have any specific configuration examples to point you to.
Russ
02-22-2002 09:10 PM
Assumption: network connected via internet. nat at both gateways. use ipsec tunnel to connect the networks. that way it will look like a single hop to the user.
Assumption1: private network. you want the server in site A to appear to be on the site B network as a local device. hmmmm - nat would work. you would need to setup a static nat on the site B network gateway and have the outside address point at the server in Site A. begs a question - why...
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