Hello. I have a situation where I got two paths to get to a destination. Router A can get to subnet C either through my Telco's onsite router (Router A->telco router->Router C)or through a secondary link that travels from Router A-> Router B->diffenent Telco router->Router C.
The link between Router A and the telco router is area 0. The link between Router A->B->Telco router is also area 0.
Normally I want traffic to go directly through the onsite telco router...and only go through the longer route if the onsite router goes down.
For some reason I'm going through the suboptimal path. Here's what the OSPF database is telling me:
Routing Bit Set on this LSA
LS age: 1267
Options: (No TOS-capability, DC)
LS Type: AS External Link
Link State ID: 192.168.33.0 (External Network Number )
Advertising Router: 192.168.50.14
LS Seq Number: 80000084
Checksum: 0x4B8B
Length: 36
Network Mask: /24
Metric Type: 1 (Comparable directly to link state metric)
TOS: 0
Metric: 100
Forward Address: 0.0.0.0
External Route Tag: 66
LS age: 262
Options: (No TOS-capability, DC)
LS Type: AS External Link
Link State ID: 192.168.33.0 (External Network Number )
Advertising Router: 192.168.50.94
LS Seq Number: 800003B8
Checksum: 0xF757
Length: 36
Network Mask: /24
Metric Type: 1 (Comparable directly to link state metric)
TOS: 0
Metric: 100
Forward Address: 0.0.0.0
External Route Tag: 66
Both telco routers advertise this route as an extern type 1 with a metric of 100. Can anyone shed some light as to why my router is picking the path via 50.14 instead of 50.94? 50.94 is a locally connected network. 50.14 is a couple of hops away.
Thanks,
Mike
