11-12-2010 11:28 AM
I have a RV016 router in place that has numerous Gateway to Gateway VPNs connected to various sites over Comcast Cable. I would like to funnel all traffic through the RV016, but I am only seeing the tunnel traffic going between each.
I think I saw some posts eluding to the fact that since the RV016 only deals with layer 3 that this is impossible. What if I added a route to each of my workstations that router all 0.0.0.0 traffic through the RV016 router. Would this work even if it's really ugly?
What I am trying to avoid is having an open Internet connection at all of my sites. I would rather be able to control it here at the main office's RV016.
Thanks in advance!
11-12-2010 02:29 PM
Hi Garry,
Currently this is not a supported feature on the RV016 router. There are no provisions to put a default route and have that force all traffic across the IPSec VPN tunnel.
What happens is when you define each IPSec tunnel, you are specifying which traffic (local) will go where (remote). This then builds the routing table and if a packet is destined for a network across the tunnel, it will be forwarded there. If it is destined for a network out on the internet, it then forwards the traffic out the WAN and on to the ISP to route.
I hope this answers your question.
Thanks!
Dave
11-18-2010 06:40 AM
Just as an idea. You can create the tunnel with the remote local network as 0.0.0.0 to force all 0.0.0.0 traffic through the tunnel and use the tunnel as a default route. I have seen this before where someone wanted all traffic to go through the tunnel to the other location then out to the internet. It is a lot of overhead but it worked.
11-18-2010 07:44 AM
This link might help. https://supportforums.cisco.com/docs/DOC-12534
11-18-2010 09:11 AM
tekliu,
I actually found and tried this solution last night, but below is how my routing table looks on my RV042. When I do a tracert to www.google.com or whatever I can see that the traffic basically hits my router then out through the Comcast modem. If I do anything on the main office subnet 172.16.1.0 then I can see it hit both routers.
Should I maybe reset the router to default and do this from the start? As you can see below all 0.0.0.0 traffic is set to go out through the Comcast gateway 74.94.253.10.
Routing Table Entry List |
|
Destination IP Address | Subnet Mask | Default Gateway | Hop Count | Interface |
---|---|---|---|---|
74.94.253.8 | 255.255.255.252 | * | 40 | ixp1 |
74.94.253.8 | 255.255.255.252 | * | 45 | ipsec0 |
192.168.3.0 | 255.255.255.0 | * | 50 | ixp0 |
192.168.2.0 | 255.255.255.0 | 74.94.253.10 | 10 | ipsec0 |
192.168.2.0 | 255.255.255.0 | * | 50 | ixp0 |
172.16.1.0 | 255.255.255.0 | * | 50 | ixp0 |
default | 0.0.0.0 | 74.94.253.10 | 40 | ixp1 |
I can send you all of my config data when if you need it.
Thanks!
Discover and save your favorite ideas. Come back to expert answers, step-by-step guides, recent topics, and more.
New here? Get started with these tips. How to use Community New member guide