I don't know if this is possible at all - so would be very thankful to get a "high-level" answer. But, any answer will do!!
First, to set the stage, I'm going to assume that there is a private or leased line connecting two sites. Those sites are connected using RV042 in one of two possible configurations WITHOUT VPN:
1) Both RV042 devices connect to the leased line on the WAN side (via an "interim" LAN subnet). Routing sends packets over the leased line to the appropriate device (if there are more than two). This works but no remote internet connection possible (I do believe).
OR -
2)The "remote" RV042 device has its WAN connected tot he leased line. The "main" RV042 has its LAN connected to the leased line. In this case, the remote site can access the internet via the main site - with appropriate settings of course.
Now, let us suppose that we want to connect over the leased line using a VPN. It appears that this means the WAN sides have to connect to the leased line, which is the same as case (1) above. But now, I want to have the remote site not only connect via VPN to the main site but I also want the remote site to access the internet via the main site.
Is this possible?
If so, how?
If not, why?
Similarly, I would want to get packets from the remote site to a gateway on the main LAN (and on to a 3rd site via that gateway), But I've not found a way to do that IF there's a VPN as in (2). Presumably this *can* be done as in (1). Thanks!! ....
