11-27-2018 11:31 AM - edited 11-27-2018 11:39 AM
Hi all,
Been thinking of using OSPF ..but its seems to involve quite some pre-planning in how the protocol will fit into my current network topology....
a) Can i confirm that inter-area traffic will be routed towards area 0 / area0 will be the transit network for all inter-area traffic ?
b) Consider the diagram below
q1) Does R1 send Type3 LSA for Area2 via both Area 1 and Area 0 to R2 ?
Area2 wants to send traffic to Area3
q2) Going by the rule above that all inter-area traffic must transit to Area0, isn't it totally not efficient for traffc from Area 2 <-> Area 3 to pass through Area 0 via a 100Mb link ? - especially when Area2 can reach Area3 through Area1 on 1Gbps link ?
Sorry if i am not getting the full picture..
Regards,
Alan
11-27-2018 11:52 AM
a) Yes, all traffic between two areas need to transit via the backbone area.
q1) type 3 LSAs are only exchanged via the backbone area. L3 LSAs received via any other areas will not be propagated beyond this area.
q2) yes, traffic needs to transit via the backbone area. It is not inefficient if you put the link between R1 and R2 in area 0.
Regards,
11-27-2018 02:50 PM
Many of us are used to the flexibility that we get using EIGRP which would make it easier to accommodate what the original poster is suggesting. But if we adopt OSPF as our routing protocol we much accept that it imposes certain architectural restrictions.
It is not clear whether there was a particular reason for creating area 1 and trying to use it as a transit area. Perhaps it was intended to keep that as a dedicated link for communication between those two areas? In that case it would not work using OSPF. But perhaps an alternative might be to use OSPF as the routing protocol for the enterprise and to use Policy Based Routing to direct traffic between these two areas over the link (and to not have that link in OSPF at all)?
HTH
Rick
11-28-2018 04:54 AM
Hi Richard and Harold,
Thank you so much for the advices given.
In view of the replies given, can i confirm the following
a) Base on the original diagram given, traffic from Area2 <-> Area3 will not transit through Area1 (even if Area1 has a lower cost) and will transit through Area0
b) ABR will not propagate Type3 LSA into non-Area0 areas - hence R1 and R2 will not propagate Type3 LSA into Area1.
c) Lastly, how will inter-area traffic from Area1 <-> Area2 flow towards each other ? Will it transit through Area0 ?
e.g. Area 2's traffic to Area1 will transit via R1 -> (area0) -> R2 -> then (area1) ?
Regards,
Alan
11-28-2018 06:21 AM
Hi Alan,
a) Correct
b) R1 and R2 being ABRs, they will propagate their respective type 3 LSAs into area 1, but these type 3 LSA will not further be propagated (i.e. R1 will propagate type 3 LSA for area 2 into area 1, but R2 will not further propagate them to area 3).
c) Since R1 is an ABR between area 1 and area 2, traffic will transit directly between the two areas through R1.
Regards,
11-28-2018 08:06 AM
Hi Harold,
Type 3 LSAs are only exchanged via the backbone area. L3 LSAs received via any other areas will not be propagated beyond this area.
R1 and R2 being ABRs, they will propagate their respective type 3 LSAs into area 1, but these type 3 LSA will not further be propagated (i.e. R1 will propagate type 3 LSA for area 2 into area 1, but R2 will not further propagate them to area 3).
Sorry i am still abit confuse about the 2 statements above... Could you explain further ?
c) Since R1 is an ABR between area 1 and area 2, traffic will transit directly between the two areas through R1.
Does that means that the rule in which all inter-area communication must go through area0 does not apply if the souce and destination areas are connected to the same ABR ?
Regards,
Alan
11-29-2018 08:24 AM - edited 11-29-2018 08:25 AM
> Sorry i am still a bit confuse about the 2 statements above... Could you explain further ?
- R1 receives link state information from area 2.
- As it is an ABR, it injects the type 3 LSAs for area 2 in area 0 and area 1.
- R2 receives the type 3 LSAs from area 0 and propagates in area 3.
- R2 also receives the type 3 LSAs for area 2 via area 1, but does not propagate to area 3. AS an ABR, It can only further propagate type 3 LSAs received via area 0.
> Does that means that the rule in which all inter-area communication must go through area0 does not apply if the source and destination areas are connected to the same ABR ?
The rule still applies, as the ABR is part of area 0.
Regards,
11-29-2018 07:51 AM
11-29-2018 09:25 AM
Hi Joseph,
Thanks for the precision. The point I was trying to convey is that crossing an ABR is considered going through area 0.
Regards,
11-30-2018 08:14 AM
11-28-2018 05:58 AM
I always question the multi-area requirement. Even in large deployments, OSPF is efficient enough to support high numbers of routers in a single area. In this case, with the total number of routers being less than 50, if there is no other driver for the other areas, path selection would be best achieved by the use of a single area.
Hope this helps,
Dave
11-28-2018 06:33 AM
Hi Dave,
I tend to agree with your comment. Many networks have an over complicated area design and in many cases could just use a single area.
Regards,
11-29-2018 07:26 AM
11-29-2018 07:42 AM
A few other items that I have seen contribute to the stability of OSPF designs are:
All of these will help you scale both single- and multi-area topologies.
Obviously, alternatives (e.g. point-to-multipoint) have their place, but these three guidelines promote stable scalability.
Hope this helps
Dave
11-29-2018 07:57 AM
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