Check the attachment to see if this setup looks valid.
Senario:
You have a connection to a business partner. You're router connects to the business partners router, both your routers interface and the business partners router interface are on the same subnet as should be. This same subnet/network the interfaces are part of is the subnet you are routing to on the business partners side. Does this look like a valid configuration. You are going to be redistributing the static route into you table (EIGRP), the vendor will be just using static routes. My questioning this is the way I have usually set this up is to use like a /30 on the p-to-p interfaces with a separate network routing to that is not in the same subnet as the interfaces.
Thanks,
Brandon