cisco small business rv042 v3 load balancing

[jhun.adroit]

Im using load balancing, I just want to ask if its possible to use only WAN 1 for all kind of internet traffics but use only WAN 2 for remote desktop internet connection which is 3389 port(windows default).

I want to ask also if the inbound traffice also will use only  WAN 1 but the inbound traffic of remote desktop connection will use WAN 2, actually i dont know the behacior of traffic when using load balancing so Im asking if its possible to be like this.

Thank you for immidiate response

[lutlai]

I believe this is possible through protocol binding. This article should help.

Set Up Dual WAN Connections on RV042, RV042G and RV082 VPN Routers

Basically, you'll want to set up a protocol binding for 'all traffic' on WAN 1 and another protocol binding for 'remote desktop traffic' on WAN 2. As for your second question, I believe you could create two more protocol binding rules to apply to inbound traffic. (Just make sure to correctly configure the source and destination IP addresses so the protocol binding applies to inbound traffic.)

I hope this helps,

Lutz Lai

[viningele]

You might actually need to make your own service management rules to allow traffic UPD/TCP 1-3388 and another pair for 3390-65535.  Research and see if any other ports are required, I know with other VNC services there are additional ports required but I didn't see anything else required for RD during a quick google search.

I would think if you used the 'all traffic' on WAN 1 you would get some outbound RD traffic on that too but only RD on WAN 2.  How much RD traffic on each would depend on the logic Cisco uses to load balance. 

As far as the 2nd question I don't see how you could do that.  You can block inbound traffic on the individual WANs but you can't tell specific traffic coming in on WAN 1 to move over and use WAN 2 or vice, those are different public IPs and publically routed.  If your public IPs are dynamic you could create dyndns accounts and name them appropriately but from the outside you'll need determine which IP to use to log in. 

[jhun.adroit]

Correct me if im wrong.

when we understand the rules of traffic (outgoing and ingoing traffic), the server(in the internet) which we requested to will reply only on the ip address that we used for the request right?

if thats the case, if i control the outside traffic i can also say that the incoming traffic will be destined to the ip address that i used to make a request.

example:

when I create traffic comes out in the WAN 1. my requested page (facebook.com) will also comes-in in WAN 1.

is that considered in Load balancing?

[viningele]

Juan Ignacio Del Rosario wrote:
Correct me if im wrong.
when we understand the rules of traffic (outgoing and ingoing traffic), the server(in the internet) which we requested to will reply only on the ip address that we used for the request right? 
if thats the case, if i control the outside traffic i can also say that the incoming traffic will be destined to the ip address that i used to make a request.
example:
when I create traffic comes out in the WAN 1. my requested page (facebook.com) will also comes-in in WAN 1.
is that considered in Load balancing?

Yes, traffic will return to the same public IP (WAN) that originated it.  I thought your OP and maybe due to the 1st response you wanted to also protocol bind the inbound traffic too which isn't necassary as you've descibed here but if you initiate traffic from the internet to your LAN you just have to pick the correct public IP. 

Which direction do you want this to work?  Are clients on this LAN initiating RD connections to hosts through the internet or are you wanting to connect to hosts on this LAN from the internet?