02-01-2005 07:20 AM - edited 03-02-2019 09:24 PM
I currently have two networks (1.1.1.0 & 2.2.2.0) that route between themselves. Now I have a firewall that will sit between a new network (3.3.3.0 & 1.1.1.0) that will allow HTTPS-only traffic. Let's say the router is 1.1.1.1 and it is my default gateway. My question now is - if I continue to use only that gateway, I should only have create a static route (on the router) that points back to the firewall where the network 3.3.3.0 resides. Is this correct? Make note that the firewall's inside IP is part of the 1.1.1.0 network, and it's outside IP is part of the 3.3.3.0 network.
02-01-2005 10:37 AM
Yes if you point both the 3.3.3.0 and the 1.1.1.0 network to the firewall as you default gateway then everything should work. The only thing is that I would also have a static on the firewall that points to the 2.2.2.0 network via the 1.1.1.0 network.
02-01-2005 11:09 AM
If I understand correctly, you're suggesting that my new default gateway for network 1.1.1.0 should now be the firewall's inside IP (for instance - 1.1.1.2)? If I could, I'd rather keep my default gateway as the router, in this case 1.1.1.1 then have traffic that needs to traverse the 3.3.3.0 network forward to the inside IP of the firewall (1.1.1.2), thereby making it to the 3.3.3.0 network. I actually set it up this way and it seems to want to forward out the second interface of the router rather than back to the firewall.
02-01-2005 11:15 AM
I also failed to mention that the firewalling should only be between the networks (1.1.1.0 & 3.3.3.0, NOT 2.2.2.0). It may sound strange but that's the case.
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