08-12-2004 02:38 AM - edited 03-02-2019 05:43 PM
Does "ip nat inside source static" only statically map on a 1 to 1 IP basis? If I have a /16 and I want to statically NAT that to another /16 so an IP on the source /16 will map directly to "the same" IP on the NAT'ed network what is the best way of doing this? I would normally use PAT or configure a pool but in this case it has to be a 1 to 1 mapping. I've done this with a Cisco PIX but I don't think I've ever had to do this on a router before. Any ideas?
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08-12-2004 03:12 AM
How about;
ip nat pool thuspool-1
so the address used from the pool would match the host part of the source address. IF your addresses lend themselves to this config ?
Else you have a lot of statics to configure.
08-12-2004 03:12 AM
How about;
ip nat pool thuspool-1
so the address used from the pool would match the host part of the source address. IF your addresses lend themselves to this config ?
Else you have a lot of statics to configure.
08-12-2004 03:16 AM
That looks like it will work.
Thanks.
08-12-2004 11:00 AM
Rather, you could use the command
ip nat inside source static network
to translate for the network.
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