03-05-2013 05:02 PM
I am trying to help a customer remove an extra router from their network. It sits between them and the outside world. The customer has a block of routed ips. What I want to do is move the wan from the old router onto the new router and still keep the old ips on the outside for nat/passing in. Is this possible to do?
Sage
Solved! Go to Solution.
03-07-2013 01:15 AM
Hi,
I understand your topology the following:
ISP(i-net)---10.1.1.2/30 WAN (router) LAN 10.10.10.1/29-----10.10.10.2/29WAN (RV042G) LAN......the users... where both routers are in gateway mode
If this is the correct configuration you are write that you do not need the first router. And if network already works that way, it means that port forwarding ruls for the users are already created on both routers. What you need to do is just remove the first router and configure the WAN port on RV042G with the IP 10.1.1.2
You mention a VLAN 155 on the WAN side. RV042G does not have option to specify the VLAN on the WAN port.
Also, insure that the ISP does not have any port security as allowing connection only to the MAC address of the first router.
Regards,
Kremena
03-05-2013 05:15 PM
Hi Sage, I am assuming the IPs that are on the public block are assigned to a physical device on the LAN? You may use DMZ subnet for that set up.
Otherwise, you would have to configure a one to one nat if the LAN devices have a private Ip but you want to map a public IP to those LAN devices.
-Tom
Please mark answered for helpful posts
03-06-2013 07:52 PM
I looked at the router today
The way its setup is this
10.10.10.2/29 is on wan1
1-1 nat is setup for the rest of the ip's
The router I want to remove has 10.1.1.2/30 with valn 155 on its wan side and 10.10.10.1/29 on its lan side
Is the only change I need to do is swap
10.10.10.2/29 for 10.1.1.2/30 then add a bunch of nat statements on the 10.10.10.2 ip so all the port forwards continue to work?
Sage
03-07-2013 01:15 AM
Hi,
I understand your topology the following:
ISP(i-net)---10.1.1.2/30 WAN (router) LAN 10.10.10.1/29-----10.10.10.2/29WAN (RV042G) LAN......the users... where both routers are in gateway mode
If this is the correct configuration you are write that you do not need the first router. And if network already works that way, it means that port forwarding ruls for the users are already created on both routers. What you need to do is just remove the first router and configure the WAN port on RV042G with the IP 10.1.1.2
You mention a VLAN 155 on the WAN side. RV042G does not have option to specify the VLAN on the WAN port.
Also, insure that the ISP does not have any port security as allowing connection only to the MAC address of the first router.
Regards,
Kremena
Discover and save your favorite ideas. Come back to expert answers, step-by-step guides, recent topics, and more.
New here? Get started with these tips. How to use Community New member guide