Apologies in advance for the crude drawing
There's an original setup where the green dmvpn did not exist, R1 is the home office R2/R3 are remote offices with substantial bandwidth to the home office, R4/R5 routed everything to R2/R3 over a GRE tunnel. Everything was area 0, so all those Gig interfaces are pictured that way as they all contained the config ip ospf 1 area 0.
There's a new requirement, leaving that existing working config, but add a GRE tunnel from R4/R5 directly back to R1. A phase 2 dmvpn was setup, the source on the hub router R1 is the loopback, R4 and R5 tunnels come up no issue.
OSPF. R1/R4/R5 ip ospf network broadcast, priority on R4/R5 is set to 0. R1/R4/R5 tunnel interfaces: ip ospf 1 area 1 so that *only* the 3 tunnel interfaces are area 1, everything else is left at area 0...is this good practice? Or is there a better solution? For instance, should all of the networks on R4/R5 be moved to area 1?
Keeping in mind all of those interfaces pictured are what's in play in production, point to point between routers, but the environment is just 5 routers in total so it's not enormous, but the other interfaces hanging off R1 and R4/R5 are local subnets for those offices.
Thanks in advance.
