09-27-2007 11:16 PM - edited 03-03-2019 06:56 PM
Suppose Router A fast ethernet0/0 is connected to Router B fast ethernet 0/0
If router A has below configuration
RouterA#
int fast ethernet 0/0
ip ospf cost 20
does command "ip ospf cost" is for outgoing purpose? which mean
Cost from routerA to RouterB fast ethernet 0/1 is 21
but cost from RouterB 0/1 to RouterA is default cost 2
09-27-2007 11:25 PM
Incoming and outgoing can be a little confusing with routing costs.
In this case you have told router A that the cost to get to fas 0/0 is 20.
That will be used in routing calculations to get to that LAN via router A
09-28-2007 07:30 PM
Yes, OSPF just looks at the "outgoing" cost. Normally, you would expect a link of symmetric bandwidth to be costed the same in both directions but you can use this capability to prefer one outgoing path over another when they are actually equal or make two outgoing paths look the same when they are not.
Also, it is possible to have asymmetric bandwidth links. ADSL would be an example.
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