04-20-2013 11:12 AM - edited 03-04-2019 07:39 PM
Hey Folks,
I have a doubt.
If I run ospfv2 process in one router and ospfv3 in other for address-family ipv4, will it make an adjacency.
Regards
Thanveer
"Everybody is genius. But if you judge a fish by its ability to climb a tree, it will live its whole life believing that it is a stupid."
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04-20-2013 12:18 PM
Given that ospfv3 communicates using IPv6 link-local addresses, you would at least need to enable IPv6 on all interfaces where ospfv3 is expected to run. I do not see the point of doing that though. People might decide to deploy ospfv3 for their IPv6 needs and then migrate IPv4 from ospfv2 to ospfv3. But I quite frankly not see that happening on a large scale.
Hops this helps
04-20-2013 11:56 AM
Hi Thanveer,
No, they will not. ospfv2 uses ipv4 as a transport, whereas ospfv3 uses ipv6. No chance of them ever establishing an adjacency.
Hope this helps
04-20-2013 12:02 PM
Thanks Harold,
Will I not be able to use ospfv3 for address family ipv4 with no ipv6 routing enabled. I mean in IOS XR.
Regards
Thanveer
"Everybody is genius. But if you judge a fish by its ability to climb a tree, it will live its whole life believing that it is a stupid."
04-20-2013 12:18 PM
Given that ospfv3 communicates using IPv6 link-local addresses, you would at least need to enable IPv6 on all interfaces where ospfv3 is expected to run. I do not see the point of doing that though. People might decide to deploy ospfv3 for their IPv6 needs and then migrate IPv4 from ospfv2 to ospfv3. But I quite frankly not see that happening on a large scale.
Hops this helps
04-20-2013 12:22 PM
Thanks Harold, Extremely helpful...!!!!!!
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