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ospfv3 and ospfv2

Hey Folks,

I have a doubt.

If I run ospfv2 process in one router and ospfv3 in other for address-family ipv4, will it make an adjacency.

Regards
Thanveer
"Everybody is genius. But if you judge a fish by its ability to climb a tree, it will live its whole life believing that it is a stupid."       

1 Accepted Solution

Accepted Solutions

Given that ospfv3 communicates using IPv6 link-local addresses, you would at least need to enable IPv6 on all interfaces where ospfv3 is expected to run. I do not see the point of doing that though. People might decide to deploy ospfv3 for their IPv6 needs and then migrate IPv4 from ospfv2 to ospfv3. But I quite frankly not see that happening on a large scale.

Hops this helps

Regards,
Harold Ritter, CCIE #4168 (EI, SP)

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4 Replies 4

Harold Ritter
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Hi Thanveer,

No, they will not. ospfv2 uses ipv4 as a transport, whereas ospfv3 uses ipv6. No chance of them ever establishing an adjacency.

Hope this helps

Regards,
Harold Ritter, CCIE #4168 (EI, SP)

Thanks Harold,

Will I not be able to use ospfv3 for address family ipv4 with no ipv6 routing enabled. I mean in IOS XR.

Regards
Thanveer
"Everybody is genius. But if you judge a fish by its ability to climb a tree, it will live its whole life believing that it is a stupid."

Given that ospfv3 communicates using IPv6 link-local addresses, you would at least need to enable IPv6 on all interfaces where ospfv3 is expected to run. I do not see the point of doing that though. People might decide to deploy ospfv3 for their IPv6 needs and then migrate IPv4 from ospfv2 to ospfv3. But I quite frankly not see that happening on a large scale.

Hops this helps

Regards,
Harold Ritter, CCIE #4168 (EI, SP)

Thanks Harold,  Extremely helpful...!!!!!!