07-01-2016 09:20 PM - edited 03-05-2019 04:21 AM
Hi,
I know this may seem a simple question but I just wanted to make sure. Here's it is.
Does a router drop a packet with a source IP address not in its routing table? If so, why?
Thanks in advance!
07-01-2016 11:19 PM
Assuming this is a standard unicast packet not using reserved ranges - no it does not, unless you have configured reverse path forwarding or access control lists.
07-03-2016 04:06 AM
Thank you.
07-02-2016 10:23 AM
Hi
Philip is absolutely right; I just want to add a consideration: in that scenario if you have some king of returning traffic, it will be discarded having a destination ip address for which the router has no entry in routing table. So, not having the source ip in routing table could be a clue of some problem (may be asymmetric routing).
Bye,
enrico
PS: please, rate if useful
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