08-20-2012 11:14 AM - edited 03-07-2019 08:27 AM
If I bridge two interfaces on my router using IRB, does it really matter what bridge-group or bvi interface number is used?
Management traffic is using Vlan6 on the connected bridges.
All is fully operational but perhaps I am missing some important point?
Should it be correctly setup using bridge-group 6 and interface bvi6 or does it really matter?
THANKS
Frank
Example of current setup
F0/0
!
F0/0.6
Description MANAGMENT
encapsulation dot1q 6 native
ip address 192.168.0.1 /24
!
F0/0.10
Description End-Users
encapsulation dot1q 10
bridge-group 1
!
F0/0.20
Description Servers
encapsulation dot1q 20
bridge-group 1
!
interface bvi1
ip address 192.168.1.1 /24
!
bridge irb
bridge 1 protocol ieee
bridge 1 route ip
08-20-2012 11:19 AM
Hello Franck,
the BVI number points to the bridge-group number and so they must match in a working configuration
in other words: there is no explicit command to associate a BVI to a bridge-group so the match is required
It is the same like in a multilayer switch with SVIs: the L3 interface vlan X refers to broadcast domain vlan X ( L2 concept)
in IRB the BVI plays the role of SVI in a multilayer switch it provides L3 services you couldn't route without IRB, you are bridging IPv4 within bridge-group 1 interfaces and you can route IPv4 from bridge-group 1 to/from other L3 interfaces via the associated BVI.
Hope to help
Giuseppe
08-20-2012 03:23 PM
I wonder about the native Vlan; in my case vlan 6--- [F0/0.6 encapsulation dot1q 6 native]. I wonder if there is a vlan/STP mismatch that causes STP (ieee) to become a broadcast like when you connect Cisco switches to non-Cisco switches?
Thanks
Frank
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