03-03-2009 03:18 PM - edited 03-06-2019 04:21 AM
Is this possible:
SW1
int range fa0/1 - 2
switchport
sw mode access
channel-group 1 mode on
int po 1
sw
sw mode access
int vlan 1
ip add 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
SW2
int range fa0/1 - 2
no switchport
channel-group 1 mode on
int po 1
ip add 1.1.1.2 255.255.255.0
I did this config and the links on SW1 did not come up. I should have investigated more but it was easier to just make a bew subnet and put 2 L3 port channels together. So my question is should this have worked or should it not have worked. My logic is that this is no differnt then putting a layer 3 link into a random switchport on that same vlan. In this scenario i am just bundeling more links together.
03-03-2009 03:39 PM
Mike
Presumably fa0/1 & 2 on SW1 were in vlan 1 ?
If so yes this should work. In fact on a 6500 running Hybrid this is how you would configure that end of the etherchannel.
Jon
03-03-2009 03:43 PM
Correct it was Vlan 1. well vlan 10 but for simplicitiy i used vlan 1 in this example. I thought it should work. With a small network and the abundance of private subnets i just took the easier route :). But its good to know it should work. I must have typoed something.
03-03-2009 03:42 PM
Didn't know that you could until I found this:
Configuring the Fast EtherChannel
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/l3sw/8540/cnfg_gd/3cfg8540.htm#xtocid40429
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