03-14-2018 06:33 AM - edited 03-08-2019 02:15 PM
Hello experts,
I am a bit confused regarding the native VLAN behavior. I came across such a network set up .
R1-----SW03------SW02--------SW01------IP Phone-----PC
Note - There are some other customers also connected to SW01 and using different VLANs.
IP Phone is on VLAN 2, PC is on VLAN 10
SW01's Gi0/1 is connecting to IP phone
Whats the point of creating a Native VLAN of 10 on SW01? Would all the traffic form different VLANs would be segregated when reaching SW3/R1?
Please let me know if you need more configs?
Thanks in advance :)
03-16-2018 04:58 AM
I didn't state his phones are using CDP, that was a general statement to the Voice VLAN command.
We cannot tell anything of his phone configuration from what has been posted.
I disagree that both are on the same VLAN.
As I say, I suspect that the data VLAN is 10 and the Voice VLAN is 2.
Martin
03-16-2018 05:24 AM
I could be wrong because I have never seen this setup this way nor would I but I may have to just lab this up and check it out. Learning is good.
Mike
03-16-2018 05:34 AM
So I can understand this.
If I have 2 DHCP pools one for phones and one for PCs.
PCs - 10.1.1.0 /24 - VLAN 2
Phones - 10.1.2.0 /24 - VLAN 10
03-16-2018 05:45 AM
03-16-2018 05:50 AM
Thanks for the info. I have never needed to connect non-cisco phones or have to deal with them. In searching on this I did come across the DHCP option to set the VLAN to the phone here...
Good information, learn something new everyday, great stuff.
Mike
03-16-2018 05:53 AM
03-16-2018 05:56 AM
Yes, as I thought.
Martin
03-16-2018 06:36 AM
Hi Joseph,
'phone that would come up untagged, receive a DHCP option informing them to switch to a tagged VLAN.'
You are right :)
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