01-10-2007 08:59 AM - edited 03-05-2019 01:42 PM
We have a situation where we 3 separate subnets fed from a 7206 router via fiber down to access switches . Now they "think" they need wireless . We want to run the same vlan for the wireless across all 3 downlinks to the access switches . Is this possible ? Can you say make 1 sub interface with the default gateway address aplied and make the other 2 downlinks the same vlan without putting an address on those subinterfaces ? Will the traffic still get routed ? Thinking about testing this out but would like any input on whether this is possible. I leaning towards it probably will not work .
01-10-2007 09:06 AM
Glen
I have not done quite what I think you are describing, so I can not speak from direct experience. But in general if an interface (or a subinterface) does not have an IP address assigned then IP will not be routed on that interface (or subinterface). So I believe that the answer is that it will not work as you describe.
HTH
Rick
01-10-2007 09:07 AM
Make all the downlinks trunks then create a new wireless vlan. Trunk that to all of the access switches. All you will need is one VLAN interface on the 7206
01-10-2007 10:34 AM
This is router not a layer 3 switch so you can't create a single SVI and apply it to multiple interfaces . I suppose it might work using IRB but that gets kind of messy and you end up bridgeing across 3 interfaces and creating a BVI . Not something we have played with much and the location is 3000 miles away .
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