04-20-2011 07:36 AM - edited 03-06-2019 04:43 PM
i have a question regarding vlan translation on a 6500 IOS switch.
Does the translation of one (1) vlan to another vlan have local significant only or does the vlan translation continue if the destination is another trunk port.
For example:
2 trunks (separate physical ports) into a 6500 switch with vlan 10,11. I translate the vlan from 10 -> 110 on one (1) of the ports and 10 -> 210 on the other port. We have a layer 2 link between this switch and another 6500. Will the other 6500 receive vlan 10 or will it receive vlan 110 and 210?
The documentation states:
When you configure a VLAN mapping from the original VLAN to the translated VLAN on a port, traffic arriving on the original VLAN gets mapped or translated to the translated VLAN at the ingress of the switch port, and the traffic internally tagged with the translated VLAN gets mapped to the original VLAN before leaving the switch port. This method of VLAN mapping is a two-way mapping.
Thanks for you help.
04-20-2011 08:15 AM
I am not completely following your question but if you have two 6500's trunk together the VTP mode and revision number will determine how your VLANS are propagated. If both 6500's are in server mode and 6500A has a higher revision number, the VLAN database will over write the information in 6500B. Not sure if this helps out your question.
04-20-2011 09:03 AM
No, it did not, but it reminded me of VTP and if I need it or not. I thank you for that.
I am trying to understand if vlan mapping/translation or local to the switch or does the new tag (re-map) remains after leaving the switch. So if I put a sniffer on a egress port of the switch will I see the original VLAN tag or the re-mapped VLAN tag?
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