04-25-2008 05:40 PM - edited 03-05-2019 10:37 PM
Our ISP hands us an ethernet link. ISP router has one address of (for argument sake) 1.1.1.0/30 net, - let's say they have 1.1.1.1 we have the other usable address of 1.1.1.2/30 assigned to our 3825 router. Is it possible to use hsrp or vrrp if there is not two valid/unique "wan" IPs to assign to our routers? For example, if we had a pair of 3825 routers? are we stuck with basically a manual failover or requesting our isp to provide a larger address wan block ?
any feedback appreciated!
someone else had same question at :
http://www.networking-forum.com/viewtopic.php?t=2915
but no real answer given from what I could tell.
04-28-2008 12:10 PM
Hello
I found a similar question / solution on the following location http://lathiat.livejournal.com/36658.html
02-03-2012 01:54 AM
I commented at the above livejournal entry, but I'll post here as well. You can do this in VRRP by using a secondary address. I've only tested this in a lab environment, so use at own risk:
Scenario: ISP has allocated a 192.168.100.0/30 - they have taken 192.168.100.2 and your end is to use the address 192.168.100.1
Setup the two routers as follows...
Router1:
----------------
interface FastEthernet1/0
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
vrrp 1 ip 192.168.1.10
vrrp 1 ip 192.168.100.1 secondary
!
ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.252 FastEthernet1/0
----------------
Router2:
----------------
interface FastEthernet1/0
ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
vrrp 1 ip 192.168.1.10
vrrp 1 ip 192.168.100.1 secondary
!
ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.252 FastEthernet1/0
================
It does complain about having the secondary not being in the same subnet, but does work.
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