09-03-2001 05:18 AM - edited 02-21-2020 11:24 AM
Hello, I've a client who has a functioning ADSL connection. He wants to be able to set up a VPN so that he can log onto his ISP at home, then tunnel back to his office via the office ADSL connection.
He asked that an IP NAT INSIDE STATIC TCP n.n.n.n 1743 ATM0.0 statement be added which he believed would allow it work as software on his server is reponsible for managing the VPN.
However, this doesn't work. Anybody know what he really needs to make it work?
Thanks.
09-06-2001 02:48 PM
What VPN software are you using? Windows PPTP uses 1723 TCP and IP protocol 47 (GRE). What is the termination point of the tunnel? A Microsoft Server? If the tunnel transverses the router and you are not using port translation, you probably dont need any config changes on the router. If you are using port translation, You need to get a static IP for your translation.
09-06-2001 04:18 PM
Hi, thanks for your response. Client is using Windows PPTP. Termination point is a Microsoft Server. (There may be a firewall involved.)
Not using port translation as such. Have IP nat inside on E0 and IP nat outside on ATM0.1.
Have a "ip nat inside source list 101 interface ATM0.1 overload" statement and access list 101 is "access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any". IP address of server is 192.168.1.3 and E0 is 192.168.1.1.
Without an "inside source static tcp 192.168.1.3 1723 interface ATM0.1 1723" it doesn't map at all. With it, it does and if I do a telnet
09-10-2001 07:15 AM
Try adding another static inside source static ip 192.168.1.3 1723 interface ATM0.1 47 in addition to the tcp 1723 you already have.
09-11-2001 02:34 AM
Hello,
Thanks for that. I'm on annual leave at present, but have emailed my counterpart to try that and see how it goes. Thanks for your feedback and suggestions.
Regards
Bob Krautner
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