07-06-2016 09:43 PM - edited 07-05-2021 05:22 AM
Hi Guys,
Imagine that we have connections from our APs to a 2960 PoE switch and then to 3850. Like bellow:
Access Point ----> Cisco 2960 PoE ---> Cisco 3850 (MC)
As I read in Cisco documentation, Cisco 3850 does not support indirectly connected APs, but I'm not sure about about its layer. Does it means that it is possible to route CAPWAP tunnel to 3850 or it is in physical layer and says cisco 3850 should be connected directly to APs by a cables?
Will this scenario works ?
Regards,
Mahdi
Solved! Go to Solution.
07-06-2016 10:54 PM
Hi Mahdi,
As I read in Cisco documentation, Cisco 3850 does not support indirectly connected APs, but I'm not sure about about its layer. Does it means that it is possible to route CAPWAP tunnel to 3850 or it is in physical layer and says cisco 3850 should be connected directly to APs by a cables?
AP should be directly connect to a 3650/3850 in order to register that to a controller inside one of those switches.
That's how this converged access is designed by Cisco
In your scenario, any AP plug onto 2960 won't able to register to 3850MC
HTH
Rasika
*** Pls rate all useful responses ***
07-06-2016 10:54 PM
Hi Mahdi,
As I read in Cisco documentation, Cisco 3850 does not support indirectly connected APs, but I'm not sure about about its layer. Does it means that it is possible to route CAPWAP tunnel to 3850 or it is in physical layer and says cisco 3850 should be connected directly to APs by a cables?
AP should be directly connect to a 3650/3850 in order to register that to a controller inside one of those switches.
That's how this converged access is designed by Cisco
In your scenario, any AP plug onto 2960 won't able to register to 3850MC
HTH
Rasika
*** Pls rate all useful responses ***
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