Hi, a question if I may:
Imagine I have a router configured with two FXS ports (as shown in the attached diagram). I know the respective router C2610-1 with (2) FXS ports can serve as a 'PBX' for my testing purposes because the FXS ports provide the dial tone. Since the PSTN network also provides the dial-tone, I can also say the same router named C2610-1 could be considered as my PSTN instead, correct? Am I overlooking anything in my statement?