01-08-2013 02:05 PM
Greetings,
We are looking to possibly purchase 2 RV042G routers. The main goal is to tie 2 sites together (via the internet) utilizing the site-to-site VPN feature.
Here is where it gets a little tricky. Since this device has 2 WAN ports, is it possible to assign a seperate IP address for each from our ISP? Then, what we would like to do is assign a couple LAN ports to have the traffic flow through WAN1 and the other LAN ports to flow through WAN2. The LAN addressing can be on the same subnet or seperate.
Thanks
01-08-2013 03:39 PM
Yes. To make your statement more granular, you may assign a LAN source IP to use a WAN different then the VPN tunnel interface. However, you should use ONLY SPECIFIC services such as HTTP when binding a LAN host to a WAN interface, if you bind all services, the LAN host may not access through the VPN tunnel.
-Tom
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01-09-2013 12:56 PM
Not so sure if I was clear enough.
Let's just say for now, we won't be using a site-to-site tunnel.
We have 2 seperate ISP lines coming in. To the ISP, each of the WAN port will have it's own MAC and therefore, it's own IP. Is it then possible to split the LAN ports such that half of them go through one WAN and the other half will go through the other. In other words, a computer on (V)LAN1 will see WAN1's IP when going to IPChicken.com and (V)LAN2 computers will see WAN2's IP.
Is this doable?
Thanks!
01-09-2013 01:01 PM
Yes, protocol bind ALL services for the range of IP you wish to the WAN you wish.
-Tom
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01-09-2013 02:24 PM
Ahh, so getting back to your original response, if ALL services IP ranges are bound to each of the WAN ports, there is no way to have one or both of the LANs to communicate via the site-to-site tunnel?
Thanks
01-09-2013 02:31 PM
VPN traffic destined for a remote subnet will be directed toward to the WAN interface associated with the tunnel. Protocol binding rules are only applicable to the generic internet bound traffic.
01-10-2013 07:42 AM
Great, so our end goal is doable from the sounds of it.
Thanks for the help!
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