02-06-2025 02:56 AM - edited 02-06-2025 02:59 AM
Hello,
We have acquired a new company where we have cisco 892 router with 2 vlans
VLAN2 AND VLAN 1
VLAN2 PORT ON THE 892 ROUTER IS ON ETHERNET 7 VLAN 2 IP 192.168.10.1 WHICH IS CONNECTED TO ANOTHER CISCO CALL MANAGER EXPRESS ROUTER 3825 ON PORT GIG0/0 192.168.10.2
BOTH ARE ABLE TO PING EACH OTHER
MY QUESTION IS HOW CISCO 892 ROUTER WHICH IS ON VLAN2 CAN PING 3825 ROUTER WITHOUT ANY VLAN MENTIONED ON THE GIG0/0 port.
Thanks
Solved! Go to Solution.
02-06-2025 03:04 AM
If Port is in access on the 892 and It is a layer3 Port on 3825, they Will ping
When you hit the command ping the Router Will send ARP request on the vlan2 and all ports on that vlan Will receives. Then, 3825 on Port ether7 Will reply the ARP and the ping will happen.
02-06-2025 03:14 AM
So you mean to say when your run PING command from cisco 892, it will send the ARP request on VLAN2 , then 3825 ON PORT ETHER 7 will reply and ping will happen.
02-06-2025 03:04 AM
If Port is in access on the 892 and It is a layer3 Port on 3825, they Will ping
When you hit the command ping the Router Will send ARP request on the vlan2 and all ports on that vlan Will receives. Then, 3825 on Port ether7 Will reply the ARP and the ping will happen.
02-06-2025 03:14 AM
So you mean to say when your run PING command from cisco 892, it will send the ARP request on VLAN2 , then 3825 ON PORT ETHER 7 will reply and ping will happen.
02-06-2025 03:40 AM
Thats correct
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