04-01-2010 06:28 AM - edited 03-04-2019 08:00 AM
I have a Cisco 1700 and was wondering it is was possible to configure as a T1 Pass Through? The customer is getting a T1 as a backup to our fiber- required by German corporate. They however, don't want to buy a different Router and want to still use the silly Sonic Wall the IT Person put in. I was trying to up sell to a Cisco.
Anyway, they would like to put a 1700 off the T1 but want NO routing done within the 1700 -- just a pass through to convert to Ethernet to hand to the Sonic Wall - which will do all the routing. ANY IDEAS?
This is what I am looking to do
Verizon T1---- To Cisco 1700 Serial 0/0 CSU/DSU no routing - ETH 1/0 - Hand off to Sonic Wall.
Cheers!
04-01-2010 07:33 AM
You cannot go from T1 to ethernet without routing - it's as simple as that.
04-01-2010 07:49 AM
Thank you. This what I thought however one of the cabling guys who doesn't deal with Routers was 100% positive that I could get it to work. He brought 3 routers and wanted me to work on it until I got it working. I told him it was possible. So I thought I would post because if I was missing something than someone on here always has an answer! Thanks for proving me RIGHT!
Cheers
04-01-2010 07:50 AM
Sorry I told him it WASN'T possible.
04-01-2010 08:03 AM
But that is not a problem really. To your customer eyes the router will just convert T1 to ethernet.
When the technical details are above someone understanding, better not even discussing them.
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04-02-2010 06:15 PM
This can be done without routing on a router. This is called transparent bridging where we only do bridging between serial T1 to Ethernet.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk331/tk660/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094471.shtml
Look for Simple Transparent Bridging section in the above document. Instead of the second ethenet interface, add the bridge-group command under the serial interface.
04-03-2010 04:43 AM
This can be done without routing on a router. This is called transparent bridging where we only do bridging between serial T1 to Ethernet.
Incorrect, layer 2 encapsulation used by ISP used on T1 circuits (HDLC or PPP) is NOT bridgeable because there are no MAC addresses.
09-23-2010 02:19 PM
I know this was posted long time ago but i am trying to do similar thing with T1. I thought it is posible becasue you can do it on ADSL? I have done transparent bridging on WIC-ADSL module and Ethernet Port. According to my knowledge it also uses ppp. Can you explain it in more details or send some refernce documents?
Take care
09-24-2010 12:13 PM
Pertinent to your problem, what are you trying to do, and why ?
Incidentally, I note that only a very ignorant person may have low-rated my post above, because what I wrote is the simple, uncontestable truth.
09-24-2010 12:20 PM
I am attaching Visio Diagram of what i am trying to do. I think it explain better than words. Let me know what you think and if anything like this is possible. The reason why i would do something like this is when ISP gives you only one IP address and you do not want to do double NAT.
Regards
Pawel Bargiel
09-24-2010 12:22 PM
Please use only standard image formats for attachments, do not use proprietary formats.
What is the physical media used by ISP ? ADSL, T1, Ethernet ?
In case of ADSL, What is the protocol, PPPoE, Bridged RFC ?
09-24-2010 12:28 PM
09-24-2010 10:14 PM
Sorry, I do not understand the purpose of it.
It is a study lab or a real scenario ?
09-25-2010 11:46 AM
It is a lab scenario to test if this is possible or if there is any walk around it. Example: (Based on the Lab scenario) R2 is an ISP router conntected to my (R1) router via T1 (in this lab both routers use WIC-T1-CSU/DSU to simulate T1 link). I am provided only one IP address that i can use "172.1.1.2" and i want to bridge that address from R1 (S0/0) to sonicwall firewall WAN interface. Is there any way i can do it?
09-25-2010 08:23 PM
In the real world, ISPs using T1 do not provide only one address.
When you will produce a real scenario, things can be looked at.
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