09-17-2008 05:48 AM - edited 03-06-2019 01:26 AM
I have connected 2 cisco 2960 switches using access ports (not trunking) and i configured one management ip for each.
The first one
interface vlan1
ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0
The second one
interface vlan5
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
No default gateway is configured.
The 2 ports connecting the switches are configured to be in vlans 1 and 5 respectively.
The two management ips belong to different subnets and the switches are layer 2. There is no Layer 3 device between them however ping is successful from both sides.How is this possible?
Shouldnt ping be working only if management ips were in the same subnet and ports belonging in the same VLAN?
09-17-2008 06:58 AM
As the link is set to access port on both, the VLAN info is moot - by using an access port link, and putting one in VLAN1 and the other in VLAN5 you have joined the VLANs. There is not tagging/encapsulation on an access link.
Put it into trunk mode, and you won't ping.
I am less certain about the subnet bit. I have a nagging memory that if you don't have a default gateway the switch will ARP for anything, so as neither have a default gateway, they will both find each other.
09-18-2008 06:07 AM
I debuged arp and you were right.
Thanks a lot
09-18-2008 11:48 PM
Thanks - always nice to get confirmation.
Paul.
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