PPPoE Misunderstanding (I think)

[aretsu]

Hello,

A customer wants to offer a Internet Access Service to a complete department building, so they have a 1760 router on the building and a 2600 router on the ISP premises. Their requirement is that the users get authenticated, so they think of PPPoE to provide that authentication. The scenario is as follows:

PC -ETH- 1760 RTR - E1 - 2600 RTR -ETH- INTERNET

They want the 2600 to act as a PPPoE server. They want to test two possible scenarios:

1) The 1760 is the PPPoE Client and receives the PC request, and give the PC Internet Access. This solution I am not sure if can be done, because it is PPPoETHERNET and the media is a E1 and I dont think it can be done.

2) The PC is the PPPoE client and the 1760 router only function as pass through. This solution may work, but I am not sure.

If anyone have done this or know if this can be done, please let me know. Some URL would be great!

Thanks!

[sstudsdahl]

If the goal is to authenticate the 1760 to the 2600, configuring the E1 with an encapsulation type of PPP and setting up PAP/CHAP authetnication will take of this. If the goal is to force each user behind the 1760 to authenticate prior to getting out to the Internet, you might look at using Authentication Proxy in the IOS Firewall feature setup. Here is a link that discusses what it does and how to configure it.

http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios122/122cgcr/fsecur_c/ftrafwl/scfauthp.htm

Steve