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Let NTP server serve time synchronized to PRI

jalsovszky
Level 1
Level 1

Hello!

I have configured NTP on a Cisco AS5300. PRI's have clock source line configured and it works well (no slips). I would like to provide this precise time (gotten from PSTN) to PC-based servers with NTP. My question is:how to tell the cisco router to use PRI clock? [other parts are configured already and are working well - PC is synchronized to the router]

Any hint?

Thanks in advance,

Thomas

6 Replies 6

jasyoung
Level 7
Level 7

Unfortunately, you can't do that. T1 circuits don't provide that type of time information. You need to synchronize your router over the internet to one of the public NTP servers. Pick a couple servers off the stratum 2 list and configure your router to synchronize to those (it is considered rude to burden stratum 1 servers).

http://www.eecis.udel.edu/~mills/ntp/servers.html

If you can't use a source on the public Internet and you absolutely need to have NTP synchronization, search around on Google for a GPS or CDMA clock. There are some reasonably inexpensive ones that figure out the time from GPS or CDMA signals and provide stratum 1 NTP service to your network.

Thanks for the reply! I already have the router synchronized with some NTP stratum 2 servers. However I was wondering whether it is possible to have the correct time from NTP and time ticks synchronized with PSTN clocks through ISDN E1.

Now I see, that this is not possible.

My goal would be to achive better performance for T.38 faxing (I read that fax needs very precise timing so I was thinging about making the ISDN part synchronized with remote T.38 application).

Thanks for comments.

Kind regards,

Thomas

You mention that you have no slips on your E1, and that's really all you need in terms of timing. Clock slips will really screw up modem and fax connections, but you don't have that problem. That's the precise timing you've probably read about.

Ok, so it's enough to have no slips on the E1 interfaces, right? I thought that when I have my T.38 application (sender side) fully synchronized with PSTN clock (ticks), I can achieve better results. Probably I misunderestood what I have read.

Thanks for responses!

Thomas

Thomas,

I get this question a lot when it comes to T.38 fax relay and Cisco modem relay regarding T1/E1 circuit timing and NTP.

In most cases the T.38 or modem relay issues are related to T1 or E1 syncronized clock timing between multiple circuits within the same chassis. For example, a single 2600 router with two T1 or E1 circuits must use a single clock source. You CANNOT have each T1 or E1 have its own clock source. If you only have a single T1 or E1 connected to the central office and you are using their clock source (clock source line) and you are not getting any errors or slips, then circuit timing is not your problem.

Basically, NTP (Network Time Protocol) and central office T1 or E1 clock sources have absolutely nothing to do with each other. NTP could never get even close to the timing accuracy of the central office T1 or E1 clock crystals. Even though they both refer to 'timing', they are are used for entirely separate functions. You need both technologies in most WANs and they are not mutually exclusive.

Here are two key points:

1) T1 or E1 central office synchronous clocks are used to keep both ends of a T1 or E1 span in nearly perfect sync. These 'clocks' cost over US$100,000 each and provide circuit timing for thousands of spans. When referring to a T1 or E1 clock, it means a bit error clock that keep 2 million bits per second syncronized between both ends within 1 in 1E10 error rate.

2) NTP, on the other hand, is for keeping disparate time clocks (not layer 1 connected) in sync to within a 10th of a millisecond by exchanging only 2 packets per 30 second interval. While this is plenty accurate to keep time between network devices close enough to not make centralized management an issue, this is still about one millionth the accuracy of the central office T1 or E1 clock source above.

Hope this helps...

/Rick

Thank you for the detailed explanation!

Now I see more clearly ;)

Kind regards,

Thomas