See link below
Info below came from link above.
Most of the people ask this question...and the answer is that "NO" . The OSPF is designed in such a way that it needs to have the area 0 to work followed by other areas. You might have heard or read that if any area wants to talk to other area you need to go through area 0 for this we have some workaround by using virtual links or gre tunnel.
But configuring OSPF without area 0 will not work at all.
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"It depends". As the other posters have already noted, OSPF area zero is required to allow multiple OSPF areas to normally intercommunicate (using the same OSPF process). If you're going to just have a single OSPF area, it doesn't have to be area zero. Whether to start with area zero, or not, depends on how you anticipate your topology growing. (When you go to an OSPF multiple area topology, you'll likely need to migrate some routers into a new area number, ideally, you'll want to migrate as few routers as possible.)
One way to have different OSPF areas intercommunicate, without having an area zero, would be to have each OSPF area in its own OSPF process and redistribute between them. Not something you would normally do unless you have some special needs for route filtering (which can also be done on ABRs, although ASBRs might be a little more flexible).