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08-26-2012 09:14 AM - edited 03-07-2019 08:32 AM
Hi guyz,
do you know if we could set a router as RR for an ipv4 address family in a certain AS, and set another BGP router as RR for vpnv4 address family under the same AS?
if positive, is it a good practice to do that or not?
thanks!
Soroush.
Soroush.
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08-27-2012 01:36 AM
Hello Soroush,
it is possible to use different devices as BGP RR for different address families.
This is usually done for scalability in the control plane, as in this way no single RR device has to store in memory all IPv4 and all VPNv4 prefixes at the same time.
I have seen this done on a service provider network with C7200 VXR NPE-G1 as BGP RR.
Nowdays, more recent platforms like ASR 1000 have higher capabilities in terms of number of routes supported in RR role, however it is still a valid design.
Hope to help
Giuseppe
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08-27-2012 01:36 AM
Hello Soroush,
it is possible to use different devices as BGP RR for different address families.
This is usually done for scalability in the control plane, as in this way no single RR device has to store in memory all IPv4 and all VPNv4 prefixes at the same time.
I have seen this done on a service provider network with C7200 VXR NPE-G1 as BGP RR.
Nowdays, more recent platforms like ASR 1000 have higher capabilities in terms of number of routes supported in RR role, however it is still a valid design.
Hope to help
Giuseppe
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08-27-2012 11:44 AM
hi,
Thank you Giuseppe, and it is on a service provider environment.
Soroush.
Soroush.
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09-18-2013 09:23 AM
Hello Giuseppe,
I am trying to set up BGP RRs, but i want to know if it is a requirement for the clients to be directly connected to the RRs or I just need to establish TCP coonection regarless of direct/indirect connectivity?
