08-17-2013 01:29 PM - edited 03-07-2019 02:59 PM
In what situations would you pair a routed port on one end to an access port on the other, if ever?
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08-17-2013 02:03 PM
If you have a switch with an SVI/vlan and you peer it with a router using that SVI, the switch side can be an access port and the router side is a routed port.
HTH
08-17-2013 02:03 PM
If you have a switch with an SVI/vlan and you peer it with a router using that SVI, the switch side can be an access port and the router side is a routed port.
HTH
08-18-2013 11:01 AM
Is it an accepted practice though? I know in some cases, such as with firewalls, this is accepted practice but have not seen this used in other cases, particularly when the IP address on the routed port isn't in the subnet associated with the VLAN Access port on the other.
08-18-2013 11:39 AM
You have introduced a very new dimension to the discussion. As far as connecting a routed port on one side with an access port of the other side, I would say that this is a generally accepted practice. You have now also introduced the aspect that the IP address on the routed port is not in the subnet associated with the access port. I do not know why someone would do this, other than it being a mistake. In general I would expect that any connection where the two sides are not in the same subnet would not pass IP traffic over that connection (with the exception where one side has configured ip unnumbered).
HTH
Rick
08-19-2013 05:58 PM
Thanks, I'll have to look at it a bit closer.
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