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SPAN Question?

ramirowatches
Level 1
Level 1

Hello !, (I asked this question on another forum, but guess It was the wrong place to ask this question)

     I am a newbie to IT so forgive me if this is a stupid question. I was asked to characterize the SPAN capability of a Cisco 3560G switch for our specific need. My experiment consisted of using a Spirent Test Center to provide a 4 channel load to the switch which was configured to SPAN four ports placed on VLAN05. The Spirent output consisted of UDP packets with frame sizes between 68-1500Bytes. I knew that the SPAN would probably start dropping packets at aggregate speeds of 1Gbps, so I setup the Spirent ports 1-4 at different line rates with a total speed of 1G and ran for 30 seconds.

The port speeds for each run were as follows: (Mbps)

Run 1: 400, 300, 150, 150

Run 2: 600,  200, 100, 100

Run 3: 800, 100, 50, 50

Observation: (SPAN port drops)

Run 1: Dropped ~5,000 packets

Run 2: Dropped ~4,000 packets                     

Run 3: Dropped ~2,000 packets

So, My question is: Why is the packet drop greater when the load is distributed vs shifted to one port? I would think that an equally distributed load would of yielded better results or my initial belief was that it wouldn't make a difference because it was about the total load being sent to the SPAN.

Forgot to mention that the Spirent was setup to send bi-directional traffic to itself eg.. Port 1<-->2, Port 3<-->4. The Switch was configured to SPAN only the Ingress traffic.

NOTE: I attached my SPAN session config.for reference.

Thanks,

Ram

2 Replies 2

Paul Chapman
Level 4
Level 4

Hi Ram -

I'm having trouble picturing your test rig here.  Can you post your switch configs, particularly the sections showing your ingress and egress ports, and SPAN setup.

PSC

Paul,

    sorry for the delay. I posted my SPAN config if that helps.

Thanks,

Ram

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